Instrument Rating – Stage 4 Exam - Race City Flight Operations

Welcome to your Instrument Rating – Stage 4 Exam

Name

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.

stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

there are thunderstorms in the area.

there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

a cold front has passed.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

The method by which the air is lifted.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

very strong turbulence.

a jet stream.

heavy icing conditions.

What are the four families of clouds?

High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.

Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.

What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?

Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.

Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.

Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

Warm front.

Squall line.

Air mass.

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally

stronger and farther north in the summer.

weaker and farther north in the summer.

stronger and farther north in the winter.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

7,000 feet per minute.

6,000 feet per minute.

8,000 feet per minute.

What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure?

1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM.

1,240 feet MSL; 1/2 SM.

1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM.

When conducting the LOC/ DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection?

6,100 feet MSL.

3,400 feet MSL.

5,700 feet MSL.

At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate?

At STAKK intersection.

Over the BOZEMAN VOR.

When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact.

Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure for RWY 9?

968 feet per minute.

933 feet per minute.

1,050 feet per minute.

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

Advise departure control upon initial contact.

Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.

Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.

An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the name

and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.

of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet’s touchdown point.

Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.

At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point.

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.

A ground visibility of at least 2 SM.

A flight visibility of at least 1/2 NM.

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Use Category B minimums.

Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.

Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.

Aircraft approach categories are based on

certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.

1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.

You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?

Start a turn to the inbound heading and inquire if you are cleared for the approach.

Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC.

Turn outbound and make a procedure turn.

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?

During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.

When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.

During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

A straight-in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.

The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”

To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.

Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan.

Ava Hourihan

2024-06-08

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Amy Gallagher

2024-05-30

Ben and I had a great first flight with Race City. They were kind, professional, instructive, and enjoyable. We would recommend them to anyone interested in giving it a try.

Daniel Carignan

Everyone was very friendly and helpful. The instructors were helpful in answering any questions I had. I would definitely recommend other to try out the discovery flight.

Wendy White

2024-05-29

Awesome experience! Great explanation of each step and the flight school.

Ali Wali

2024-05-26

We had an awesome experience with Race City Flight Operations! Our instructor was Chloe. She was very knowledgeable and went the extra mile to give us a comprehensive and fun Discovery Flight! Highly recommend!!

B Z

2024-05-22

Excellent experience with all staff!

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2024-05-16

Loved it!!!

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