Instrument Ground School Final

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On January 23, 2024

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Welcome to your Instrument Ground School Final

Full Name

Ground School Code

If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over HINDY, the flight should

comply with straight-in landing minimums.

begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

land straight in on runway 3.

None

What could cause the failure to maintain heading when flying in IFR conditions?

Improper elevator trim.

fixation during instrument cross-check

abrupt use of the throttle.

None

What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS of 128 knots at a flight planned altitude of 5,000' if the outside air temperature is +05 °C?

126 KCAS.

124 KCAS.

119 KCAS.

None

You are flying the RNAV (GPS) RWY 27 (RAL) approach at a ground speed of 130 kts. What rate of descent will you need between the PAYIG fix and the LAYEY fix to maintain the glide slope?

1,215 fpm.

667 fpm

900 fpm.

None

How would you identify the missed approach point for the S-LDA GS 6 approach to Roanoke Regional?

Arrival at JOKNI INT 1.4 DME.

Arrival at 1,605 feet MSL.

Arrival at 2,720 feet MSL.

None

What is the height of the tropopause in the northwest region of the U.S.?

FL450

FL390

FL400 to FL500

None

You are flying IMC and descend into VMC while making an ILS approach. In order to log the approach toward instrument currency requirements, you must:

Use a view-limiting device.

The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

Remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.

None

What is the purpose of the localizer symbol depicted at Texarkana Regional Airport?

A published localizer back course, which has an additional navigation function.

A published SDF localizer approach procedure with back course capability is available.

A published ILS localizer course with voice capability.

None

What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?

The winds at 2,000 feet and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction.

The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 feet and are usually weaker.

The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.

None

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?

800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.

1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.

800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.

None

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.

500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.

None

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least

First Class Medical certificate.

Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Category II pilot authorization.

None

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:

all instrument approaches at the destination airport.

an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.

the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft's takeoff and landing data.

None

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?

The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation.

Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.

None

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be

higher than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.

higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach.

lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.

None

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.

Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.

None

How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course prior to the final approach fix.

All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view.

Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course.

None

Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer.

In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell.

On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

None

When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.

Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.

Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.

None

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?

Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet.

All occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude.

Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.

None

For altitude corrections of 100 feet or less, use a:

One bar width pitch change on the attitude indicator.

¾ bar width pitch change on the attitude indicator.

½ bar width pitch change on the attitude indicator.

None

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by

removal of the navigational feature.

broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel.

removal of the identification feature.

None

If you are flying a GPS approach and manually override the sensitivity, what happens?

Disconnects the autopilot.

Sequences the GPS to the missed approach.

The approach mode annunciation is canceled.

None

Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The PFAF (Precision Final Approach Fix) intercept altitude is:

7,977 feet MSL.

7,080 feet MSL.

8,000 feet MSL.

None

For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand Junction, Walker Airport and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport?

12,100 feet.

15,000 feet.

16,000 feet.

None

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?

Towering cumulus.

Altocumulus castellanus.

Cumulonimbus.

None

En route to Lincoln airport, you are unable to receive the local altimeter setting. Additionally, you note that the MALSR is inoperative. What are the ILS 18 approach minimums for Category A aircraft?

1780/24.

1486/45.

1486/40.

None

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

None

In icing conditions, if your airplane begins buffeting or vibrating after extending the flaps, what is most likely happening?

A tailplane stall is beginning.

Ice accumulating on the ailerons can cause the flaps to malfunction.

The flaps may be sticking due to ice accumulation.

None

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.

All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.

Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

None

Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO?

165°

345°

175°

None

A characteristic of the stratosphere is

an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.

relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet.

None

What is the purpose of an ILS critical area marking sign?

That you are clear of the ILS critical area.

That you are clear of the runway.

The point on the airport where the ILS procedure terminates.

None

What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?

7.5 NM.

10.0 NM.

5.0 NM.

None

Aircraft approach categories are based on

1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.

certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.

None

What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 13 approach procedure?

3,500 feet MSL

2,600 feet MSL

2,548 feet MSL

None

While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.

Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.

None

Which instrument should get most of your attention when flying on instruments?

Attitude indicator

Altimeter

Airspeed indicator

None

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised 'Radar service terminated.' What action is appropriate?

Set transponder to code 1200.

Resume normal position reporting.

Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re establish radar contact.

None

What does the ATC term 'Radar Contact' signify?

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

None

Southbound on V257, at what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC if you crossed over CPN VORTAC at 0850 and over DIVID intersection at 0854?

0943.

0939.

0947.

None

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

80 knots.

40 knots.

90 knots.

None

What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)

14,000 feet MSL.

18,000 feet MSL.

14,500 feet MSL.

None

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)

5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

None

You are making a circling approach for a landing on RWY 10L at Billings Logan Intl. Your VS0 is 72 knots. What aircraft approach category should you use?

None

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.

None

The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 13 procedure at Des Moines Int'l represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of:

I-VGU Localizer.

Des Moines VORTAC.

Des Moines Airport.

None

At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?

10,200 feet MSL.

11,800 feet MSL.

10,800 feet MSL.

None

MOAs are established to

prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.

restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.

separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.

None

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

Set the altimeter first with 29.92 inches Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.

Set the altimeter to 29.92 inches Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.

Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

None

If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, this means

you should fly a tear drop entry.

a standard racetrack-type turn is required.

a procedure turn is not authorized.

None

What is the minimum crossing altitude when flying northwest on V25 at the San Marcus VORTAC?

7,600 feet.

7,500 feet.

8,600 feet.

None

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.

Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

None

You are climbing through a cloud layer and notice the outside air temperature start to drop, with conditions conducive for airframe icing. Suddenly, you experience an uncommanded roll. The corrective action you should take is:

Stop the climb, set the appropriate power and begin descending.

Lower the landing gear.

Engage the autopilot to level the wings.

None

No flight crewmember or pilot shall permit or engage in any activity not pertinent to the safe operation of the aircraft during which phases of flight?

All phases of flight.

The busy phases of flight, including takeoff and landings, climbs and descents to assigned altitudes, and all other flight operations conducted below 18,000'.

Critical phases of flight, which include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000' except cruise flight.

None

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?

During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.

When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.

During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.

None

What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at FAVBU?

5.2 NM from the approach end runway 18

11.1 NM from the approach end runway 18

4 NM from FAVBU.

None

You make a missed approach at Riverside Municipal. What is the recommended entry for the holding pattern at WISIP intersection?

Parallel or Teardrop

Direct or Teardrop

Parallel or Direct

None

What is the THRE elevation for RWY 6?

270 feet MSL.

300 feet MSL.

173 feet MSL.

None

What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR part 91 operator at Roanoke Regional, using a category C aircraft during a circling approach at 120 knots? (DME available)