Commercial Pilot – Stage 1 Exam

Posted by

Tanzir

September 12, 2025

On September 2, 2025

Welcome to your Commercial Pilot – Stage 1 Exam

Name

When the angle-of-attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will

move aft (rearward).

move forward.

not move.

None

A symmetrical airfoil moving through the air at zero degrees angle-of-attack

A— will generate a low static pressure above the wing and a high static pressure beneath the wing.

B— will produce a high pressure above the wing and a low pressure beneath the wing.

C— will cause similar acceleration of the airflow over both upper and lower surfaces, similar velocities of flow gene.

None

The lift generated by an airfoil is

A— proportional to the square of the velocity of the relative airflow.

B— inversely proportional to the air density.

C— inversely proportional to the wing surface area.

None

If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the control column is pressed forward and released, the airplane is said to display

A— negative longitudinal static stability.

B— positive longitudinal static stability.

C— neutral longitudinal static stability.

None

If the airplane attitude oscillates about its original position before gradually settling down after the control column is pressed forward and released, the airplane is said to display

A— positive dynamic stability.

B— neutral static stability.

C— negative dynamic stability.

None

Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

A— bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

B— pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

C— the need to apply continuous forward pressure on the control column.

None

If a tire has moved so that the creep marks are out of alignment, then

A— the tire is serviceable.

B— the tire should be inspected and possibly reinstalled or replaced.

C— tire pressure should be checked.

None

Most light airplane braking systems are operated

A— by cables.

B— pneumatically.

C— hydraulically.

None

How many hours are required for completion of the Commercial Certificate, following a Part 141 program?

A— 190 hours of flight training, 100 hours of ground training.

B— 250 hours of flight training, 35 hours of ground training.

C— 120 hours of flight training, 35 hours of ground training.

None

10.

What is density altitude?

A— The altitude above the standard datum plane.

B— The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

C— The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

None

11.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

A— The altimeter will indicate 15 in. Hg higher.

B— The altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

C— The altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

None

12.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

A— a right turn is entered from an east heading.

B— a left turn is entered from a west heading.

C— the aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

None

13.

Minimum thrust for steady cruise flight occurs at

A— maximum cruise speed.

B— minimum cruise speed.

C— the speed for minimum total drag.

None

14.

(Refer to Exam Figure 1.) At the airspeed represented by point “B,” in steady flight the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane’s maximum

A— endurance.

B— glide range and cruise range.

C— coefficient of lift.

None

15.

While maintaining a constant bank angle and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will

A— decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.

B— decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

C— increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

None

16.

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A— The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

B— The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

C— The other aircraft is flying away from you.

None

17.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should

A— rely on body sensations.

B— increase the breathing rate.

C— rely on aircraft instrument indications.

None

18.

In a nonpressurized airplane, at high altitudes, the amount of oxygen that diffuses across the lung membranes and into the blood is

A— decreased because of the low partial pressure of oxygen.

B— decreased because of the lower temperatures.

C— unchanged to that at sea level.

None

19.

If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1800 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is

A— 1759 CST.

B— 1829 CST.

C— 1859 CST.

None

20.

For 14 CFR Part 135 Operations, the airplane flight manual specifies a maximum altitude loss of 75 feet for malfunction of the autopilot under cruise conditions. What is the lowest altitude above the terrain the autopilot may be used during enroute operations?

A— 500 feet.

B— 1,000 feet.

C— 1,500 feet.

None

21.

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

A— Anticollision light system.

B— Gyroscopic direction indicator.

C— Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

None

22.

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be

A— the same as the lower speed.

B— two times greater than at the lower speed.

C— four times greater than at the lower speed.

None

23.

(Refer to Exam Figure 2) How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8°?

A— 440 feet.

B— 880 feet.

C— 1,320 feet.

None

24.

Stall speed is affected by

A— weight, load factor, and power.

B— load factor, angle of attack, and power.

C— angle of attack, weight, and air density.

None

25.

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will

A— increase, and induced drag will decrease.

B— decrease, and parasite drag will increase.

C— increase, and induced drag will increase.

None

26.

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

A— Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

B— Slow your airspeed to V A and maintain altitude and course.

C— Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

None

27.

What is the operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator

A— is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum driven.

B— indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

C— indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

None

28.

A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?

A— Maintain altitude and airspeed.

B— Adjust airspeed to that recommended for `.

C— Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed.

None

29.

What flight time must be shown, in a reliable record, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?

A— Flight time showing aeronautical training and experience to meet requirements for a certificate or rating.

B— All flight time flown for compensation or hire.

C— Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.

None

30.

14 CFR Part 135 applies to which operation?

A— Nonstop sightseeing flights that begin and end at the same airport, and are conducted within a 25 SM radius of that airport.

B— Aerial operations for compensation, such as aerial photography, pipeline patrol, rescue, and crop dusting.

C— Commercial operations (not an air carrier) in an aircraft with less than 20 passenger seats and a maximum payload capacity of less than 6,000 pounds.

None

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Commercial Pilot – Stage 1 Exam

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