CFI Stage 3 Exam

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Welcome to your CFI Stage 3 Exam

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An aircraft is flying at a constant power setting and constant indicated altitude. If the outside air temperature (OAT) increases, true airspeed will

increase and true altitude will decrease.

increase and true altitude will increase.

decrease and true altitude will increase.

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Which is an operational consideration regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread?

The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity increases.

The temperature spread increases as the relative humidity increases.

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What are the minimum requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

Towering cumulus clouds, sufficient moisture, and a frontal zone.

Sufficient moisture and a lifting action.

Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and lifting action.

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Consider the following statements regarding an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR). 1. A vertical visibility entry does not constitute a ceiling. 2. Fog (FG) can be reported only if the visibility is less than 5/8 mile. 3. The ceiling layer will be designated by a ‘C’. 4. Mist (BR) can be reported only if the visibility is 5/8 statute mile. 5. Temperatures reported below zero will be prefixed with a ‘-’. 6. There is no provision to report partial obscurations. Select the true statements.

1, 2, 5, and 6.

2, 4, and 6.

2, 3, and 5.

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Interpret the following radar weather report: LIT 1133 AREA 4TRW 22/100 88/170 196/180 220/115 C2425 MT 310 AT 162/110

The visibility is 4 miles in thunderstorms and the intensity of thunderstorms remains unchanged.

The maximum top of the cells is located 162° and 110 NM from the station (LIT).

There are four cells with tops at 10,000 feet, 17,000 feet, and 11,500 feet.

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In the TAF for KMEM, what does “SHRA” stand for?

A shift in wind direction is expected.

Rain showers.

A significant change in precipitation is possible.

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What does symbol 12 mean on a Surface Analysis Weather Chart?

Occluded front.

Squall line.

High-pressure ridge.

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When using a Constant Pressure Analysis Chart for planning a flight at 10,000 feet MSL, which analysis should the pilot refer to?

500-millibar analysis.

850-millibar analysis.

700-millibar analysis.

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If the certification category of an airplane is listed as ‘utility,’ it means the airplane is intended for which maneuvers?

Any maneuver incident to normal flying except acrobatics or spins.

All nonacrobatic maneuvers plus limited acrobatics including spins.

Any type of acrobatic maneuver.

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If a Second-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a commercial pilot 13 months ago, during the next 11 months this pilot may

act as pilot in command for compensation or hire, but may not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.

act as pilot in command and carry passengers or property, but not for compensation or hire.

not act as pilot in command or carry passengers or property.

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A private pilot with an airplane single-engine land rating may act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider if, within the preceding 24 months, this pilot has made

at least six flights as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider within the preceding 6 months.

ten actual or simulated glider tows.

three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

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Which preflight action is required for every flight?

Check weather reports and forecasts.

Determine alternatives if the flight cannot be completed.

Determine runway length at airports of intended use.

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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.

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Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace?

An operating VOR is required.

A Private Pilot Certificate is required for all flight within this airspace.

Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements.

None

How long may an aircraft be operated after the emergency locator transmitter has been initially removed for maintenance?

7 days.

90 days.

30 days.

None

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of

life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

life-limited parts of only engine and airframe.

all appropriate Airworthiness Certificates.

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When considering the forces acting upon an airplane in straight-and-level flight at constant airspeed, which statement is correct?

Lift always acts perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the wing and is greater than weight.

Weight always acts vertically toward the center of the Earth.

Thrust always acts forward parallel to the relative wind and is greater than drag.

None

Lift produced by an airfoil is the net force developed perpendicular to the

longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

relative wind.

chord.

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What action is necessary to make an aircraft turn?

Change the direction of lift.

Yaw the aircraft.

Change the direction of thrust.

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An airplane has a normal stalling speed of 60 knots but is forced into an accelerated stall at twice that speed. What maximum load factor will result from this maneuver?

2 G’s.

1 G.

4 G’s.

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What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 100 knots?

129 knots.

115 knots.

140 knots.

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Which action will result in a stall?

Exceeding the critical angle of attack.

Flying at too low an airspeed.

Raising the aircraft’s nose too high.

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Proper mixture control and better economy in the operation of a fuel injected engine can be achieved best by use of

an exhaust gas temperature indicator.

a fuel-flow gauge.

the recommended manifold and RPM setting for a particular altitude.

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In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading

an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

a left turn is entered from a west heading.

None

Which is a split flap?

None

What does the lower limit of the white arc on an airspeed indicator represent?

Power-off stall speed in a specified configuration.

Power-off stall speed in a landing configuration.

Minimum controllable airspeed with flaps extended.

None

Determine the approximate total distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. Temperature........................................25°C Pressure altitude............................ 2,500 ft Surface.............................................asphalt Weight............................................ 5,500 lb Wind.....................................2 kts tailwind

2,228 feet

2,294 feet

2,462 feet

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Using a maximum demonstrated crosswind component equal to 0.2 V(SO), what is a pilot able to determine? VSO.................................................... 65 kts Landing rwy .......................................... 17 Wind.....................................200° at 30 kts

Crosswind component exceeds the headwind component.

Maximum demonstrated crosswind component is exceeded.

Crosswind component is within safe limits.

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Determine the condition of the airplane: Pilot and copilot................................400 lb Passengers, aft position....................240 lb Baggage..............................................20 lb Fuel................................................... 75 gal

180 pounds under allowable gross weight, but CG is located aft of the aft limit.

157 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.

180 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.

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When operating a light multiengine airplane at V(MC), the pilot should expect performance to be sufficient to maintain

heading, altitude, and be able to climb at 50 feet per minute.

heading.

heading and altitude.

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GIVEN: Distance........................................ 200 NM True course..........................................320° Wind..................................... 215° at 25 kts True airspeed...................................116 kts Rate of fuel consumption.............19 gal/hr What would be the approximate groundspeed and amount of fuel consumed?

132 knots; 28.9 gallons.

115 knots; 33.1 gallons.

120 knots; 31.7 gallons.

None

After 141 miles are flown from the departure point, the aircraft’s position is located 11 miles off course. If 71 miles remain to be flown, what approximate total correction should be made to converge on the destination?

11°.

8°.

14°.

None

Select the correct statement concerning the Maverick VOR (area 6).

A pilot may receive transmissions from Fort Worth Flight Service Station over the VOR frequency.

Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is not available over the VOR.

The VOR has Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) capability.

None

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (area 4) to McCampbell Airport (area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?

Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.

Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering Corpus Christi Class C airspace.

Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.

None

What is the elevation of the top of the obstruction located approximately 3 NM northwest of McCampbell Airport (area 1)?

280 feet AGL.

353 feet MSL.

382 feet MSL.

None

What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?

20 NM.

10 NM.

25 NM.

None

When explaining the techniques used for making short- and soft-field takeoffs, it would be correct to state that

during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made as soon as possible.

during short-field takeoffs, lift-off should be attempted only after best rate-of-climb speed is attained.

during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made only when best angle-of-climb speed is attained

None

On final approach to landing, a faster-than-normal indicated airspeed should be used when

turbulent conditions exist

ambient temperatures are above 90°F.

landing at airports above 5,000 feet MSL with above standard temperature conditions.

None

What normally results from misjudging the rate of sink during a landing?

Ballooning.

Poor directional control.

Floating.

None

Misuse of rudder in attempting to hold the pylon during the performance of eights-on-pylons will result in which turn-and-slip indication?

‘2’ if above or below pivotal altitude.

‘1’ if above pivotal altitude; ‘2’ if below pivotal altitude.

‘1’ if below pivotal altitude; ‘2’ if above pivotal altitude.

None

Pilots who initiate a chandelle with a bank that is too steep will most likely

turn more than 180° before completing the rollout.

perform a comparatively level steep turn with a nose-high rollout at the 180° point.

stall before completing the maneuver.

None

When performing a lazy eight, where should the maximum pitchdown attitude occur?

135° point.

90° point.

180° point.

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Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red and the far bars will appear white.

If below the glidepath, the near bars will be red and the far bars white.

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.

None

Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to

vitamin A in the diet.

cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet.

carbon dioxide.

None

Which stall must be performed during a flight instructor – airplane practical test?

Accelerated.

Power-on or power-off.

Imminent.

None

During a stall recovery, the instructor allows the student to exceed maneuvering speed. Which best illustrates an ‘antiauthority’ reaction by the instructor?

There hasn’t been a problem doing this in the past.

The student should know how to recover from a stall by this time.

The aircraft can handle a lot more than the maneuvering speed.

None

What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?

Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.

Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

Holds aircraft short of the runway.

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What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.

Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

None

At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the

fouling of spark plugs.

engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

engine to overheat.

None

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?

It increases engine performance.

It increases takeoff performance.

It reduces climb performance.

None

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CFI Stage 3 Exam

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